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If the father of a child is allowed no say in whether or not the child's mother aborts it or not, how can a mother who chooses not to abort demand that the father support the child financially?
It can't be "his" in any meaningful way if the primary question - life or death - is one in which he has no say and no vote.
Or am I missing something?
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4 comments:
What you post is quite logical Ttony, but whenever did logic enter into the ambit of a "Family Court"?
JARay
On second thought Ttony the thing that we are both missing is that women have "rights". Men....well, they don't count...as eny fule nose!
JARayshkensit
Surprise surprise.
We forget truisms
Wisdom strarteth with fear of the Lord, and all that leads to.
Axiom : This is a vale of Tears.
inter alia -->The Law is an ass. in saecula saecolurum.
Telling of the age we live in is WHAT the law nowadays is an ass ABOUT.
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